Multipolarity & socialization

Sup comrades,

Over the past couple of weeks I've heard more and more comrades posit something along the lines of: Multipolarity is a material reality resulting from increased levels of global socialization of production.

I think it's an interesting explanation, because it leads us away from the vague, normative position many liberals and right-wingers are currently adopting when talking about multipolarity.

But here's my question/issue: On the regional/national level increased socialization of production leads to greater interdependencies between regions, industries, etc. Okay, we're seeing this on a global scale too. Problem is, from my understanding, these interdependencies and other mechanisms led to increasing levels of centralization of capital. Arguably we've seen this over time leading to the large, centralized modern bourgeois nation-states and monopolies. So the question is - how would this result in anything but unipolarity over time?

In fact, we've seen this happen in the first half of the 20th century. Centralization on the national level led to the development of multiple competing "poles" before WW1, then WW2 and then after 1945. However, these, as argued, developed exactly one thing: unipolarity after 1990 and up until today (questionable).

So how does an increase in socialization of production globally explain a move away from unipolarity and centralization of capital and power?

Is the contradiction between socialized production vs privatized appropriation that, as marxism argues, brings forth the necessity of socialization of ownership on the regional/national level sufficient to explain this phenomenon globally or what am I missing?